Suppose I have a sum of two Indefinite integrals, $\int f(t)dx + \int f(t)dy$. Is it possible to write this in a singke form as $\int f(t) d(x+y)$, and vise versa?
It looks “okay” to me from a logical point of view, but I obviously have no rigorous reasoning of why this should be
Edit:
I now realise that I might have stirred confusion by using a function of x. I have now changed f to a function of t. The reason I am asking is that I know that x+y=t so If i am able to express the differential in that form, integration would be possible
First of all, keep in mind that "d" is an operator, not a multiplier. Think of $dx$ meaning $d(x)$ and being similar to $\sin(x)$. So, if you had $f(x)\sin(x) + f(x)\sin(y)$ you could not rewrite that as $f(x)\sin(x + y)$.
That being said, as noted in the comments below, the addition rule states that $d(x + y) = d(x) + d(y)$, and this is true for both derivatives and differentials.
Therefore, let's do the requested transform a step at a time. The starting formula: $$ \int f(t)\,dx + \int f(t)\,dy $$ We can use the addition rule to combine the integrals into one: $$ \int \left(f(t)\,dx + f(t)\,dy\right) $$ Now we can associate: $$ \int f(t)(dx + dy) $$ Now we can use the addition rule in differentials to combine the differentials together: $$ \int f(t)\,d(x + y) $$ And that is the result you were looking for.
NOTE - I had originally come out against this method based on the reasoning in the first paragraph, when someone pointed me to the obvious point about differentials and addition in the second paragraph.