I'm new to lambda calculus and was wondering if transforming the lambda expression
$v\lambda v.v$
into
$v(\lambda v.)v$
produces the same expression. Could someone help out?
I'm new to lambda calculus and was wondering if transforming the lambda expression
$v\lambda v.v$
into
$v(\lambda v.)v$
produces the same expression. Could someone help out?
I'm reposting Benedict Eastbaugh's comment CW: