I've got a small question regarding a little exercise:
$\forall z \in \mathbb{Z}_5, \exists y \in \mathbb{Z}_5$ such that z + y = 0
Of course in $\mathbb{Z}_5$ we could just go through all the possibilities but this would be impossible for $\mathbb{Z}_n$ for large enough n. So my thought was to just pick y as $y = 5-z$ so that adding leads to 5 which leads to our desired result. But am I even allowed to do this? because 5 isn't contained in our set.
Or do just have to show the uniqueness of the additive inverse?
Thanks in advance
Here's an answer for every $n$: if $x=0$, take $y=0$; otherwise, take $y=n-x$. Note that, although $n\notin\mathbb{Z}_n$ (I am assuming that, for you, $\mathbb{Z}_n=\{0,1,2,\ldots,n-1\}$), $n-x\in\mathbb{Z}_n$.