Show that a set $∅ \neq A ⊂ \mathbb{R}^n$ is affine if and only if it is an affine subspace.
Definitions I know:
Affine set: If a set $A \subset\mathbb{R}^n$ is affine, then for all $x,y\in A$, we have $tx + (1-t)y \in A$ where $t\in\mathbb{R}$.
Affine subspace: A set $A$ is an affine subspace of $\mathbb{R}^n$ if every element $a\in A$ can be written as $p + V$, where $p\in\mathbb{R}^n$ is a fixed vector, and $V$ is a subspace of $\mathbb{R}^n$.
My work: $[\Leftarrow]$ seems easier. Consider two elements $p+v_1$ and $p+v_2$ in $A = p+V$ as defined above. Then $t(p+v_1) + (1-t)(p + v_2) = p + tv_1 + (1-t)v_2 \in p+V$ because $V$ is a subspace. So all affine subspaces are affine sets.
How do I show the other direction, namely $[\Rightarrow]$?
I started with a non-empty affine set $A\subset\mathbb{R}^n$, and I'm trying to construct $p$ and $V$ so that $p+V = A$, but I don't know how to! I'd appreciate any help!
Hint: Fix $x \in A$ and put $V:= A-x$. Check that $V$ is a vector space.