The part of the proof is given below:
but I do not understand why (in the second line) $m^{*}([a,b]) \leq l((a-\epsilon, b + \epsilon))$, what is the justification of this step?
2026-04-12 03:33:45.1775964825
An elaboration of a step in the proof of that the outer measure of an interval is its length from Royden .
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