Let $S$ be an ordered field and $S \supset E\neq \varnothing$. Then, the following are equivalent:
$u \in S$ is an upper bound of $E$.
$t \in S$ and $t > u$ implies $t \notin E $.
My Try:
Assume $(1)$ holds. Let $ t \in S$ with $t > u$ and suppose $t \in E$. Then by definition, we must have $u \geq t$. An evident contradiction. Hence, $t \notin E$.
Conversely, suppose $(2)$ holds and say $u$ is not an upper bound of $E$. In particular, we can find some $e \in E$ with $e > u$. But, an application of $(2)$ implies that $ e \notin E$. Another contradiction.
Is this correct? I know this is trivial result, but I would like to know whether I am going through the correct path. Thanks for any advice in advance.
The proof is correct. If you wanted to condense it (not necessarily a good idea), the following could be pointed out.
Since $t>u \implies t\notin E$ is the contrapositive of $t\in E\implies t\le u$ they are logically equivalent. Both say the same thing: "either $t\notin E$ or $t\le u$".