So this is from one of my homework problems in which we consider the map $f:\mathbb{R}^2\setminus \{(0,0)\} \to \mathbb{R}^2\setminus \{(0,0)\}$ where $f(x,y)=(2x,\frac{1}{2}y)$. Then it goes like "let $\sim$ be the equivalence relation generated by $(x,y)\sim f(x,y)$". However, I don't see why $\sim$ is an equivalence relation since we don't have any of reflexivity, symmetry or transitivity here.
More precisely, reflexivity fails since $(x,y)\neq f(x,y)$ whenever $(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^2\setminus \{(0,0)\}$.
To check whether we have symmetry for $\sim$, notice that $$f(x,y)\sim (x,y)\iff (x,y)=f^2 (x,y)\iff f \text{ is an involution}$$ the last part of which does not hold.
For transitivity we can only deduce that $f^k (x,y)\sim f^{k+1} (x,y)$ for all integers $k$. But it is not the case that e.g. $f(x,y)\sim f^3 (x,y)$.
Can someone explain what went wrong? Thanks!
It means that $\sim$ is the smallest equivalent relation that contains the given relation.
And yes, in effect, it means that we have to add pairs to our relation in order to get it reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
So, for a specific example, we will have e.g. $ (12,5)\sim (3,20)$.