We know that these two conditions are equivalent for finite groups :
i) $G$ is solvable.
ii) If $\left|G\right|=mn\;$ and $(m,n)=1$ then G has a subgroup of order $m$.
Now are the following two conditions equivalent for finite groups? We know that i)$ \implies$ ii) holds.
i) $G$ is nilpotent.
ii) If $m$ divides $|G|$ then $G$ has a subgroup of order $m$
I find a counterexample. $S_3$ has subgroups of order 1,2,3 and 6 but isn't direct product of it's sylow p-subgroups and hence isn't nilpotent.