Let $M$ be a module over a division ring $R$ and let $A$ and $B$ be bases of $M$.
Then $\forall a \in A \ \ \exists b \in B: \ \ (A \setminus \{ a \}) \cup \{ b \}$ is a basis of $M$.
Here's how a possible proof goes:
If $a \in B$, then $b = a$ serves.
Assume $a \notin B$, and let $S = A \setminus \{ a \}$. If $B \subseteq \langle S \rangle$, then every $b \in B$ is a linear combination of elements of $S$, and since $\langle B \rangle = M$, every $m \in M$ is a linear combination of elements of $S$, so, $\langle S \rangle = M$, and $a$ is a linear combination of elements of $S$, causing a cotnradiction to the fact that $A$ is linearly independent. Therefore $B$ is not contained in $\langle S \rangle$, and there is $b \in B$ that is not a linear combination of elements $S$. It can be easily proved that then $A' = S \cup \{b \}$ is linearly independent.
However, it still needs to be proven that this $A'$ is a also a generating (or spanning) set for $B$. Here's where I need a hand.
P.S. A proof cannot use the fact that a division ring satisfies IBN property.
You just need to prove that $a$ is in the span of $A'$.
Since $b$ is in the span of $A$, we can write it as $b=ar+v$, where $v$ is in the span of $S$. By the choice of $b$, we have $r\ne0$. Thus $a=br^{-1}+vr^{-1}$.