Let $G$ be a finite group, $D=\{(g,g):g\in G\}$ is a subgroup of the direct product $G\times G$. Show that $G$ is simple if and only if $D$ is a maximal subgroup of $G\times G$.
I tried to prove by contradiction. First assume that $G$ is simple and suppose there exist a subgroup $H$ of $G\times G$ such that $D<H<G\times G$. But i couldn't use the simplicity of $G$ to get a contradiction.
If $G$ is simple, and $D < M \le G \times G$, let $(a,b) \in M \setminus D$, so that $a \ne b$. Then $(1, 1) \ne (a,a)^{-1} (a, b) = (1, a^{-1} b) = (1, c) \in M$.
Conjugating $(1, c)$ by $(g, g)$, we see that $M$ contains all $(1, c^g)$, for $g \in G$. As $G$ is simple, the subgroup of $G$ generated by the conjugacy class $\{c^g : g \in G \}$ (which is a non-trivial normal subgroup of $G$) is $G$. Thus $M$ contains $\{1\} \times G$, and as $M$ contains $D$, $M$ also contains $G \times \{1\}$, so that $M = G \times G$.
We have proved that if $G$ is simple, then $D$ is maximal in $G \times G$.
For the converse, suppose $N$ is non-trivial normal subgroup of $G$.
Then $D$ normalizes $N \times \{1\} = \{(n, 1):n\in N\}$, so $ND$ is a subgroup of $G \times G$ properly containing $D$.
If $D$ is maximal in $G \times G$, then $ND = G \times G$. In particular for each $g \in G$ one has $(1, g^{-1}) \in ND$, so that $(1, g^{-1}) = (n, 1) (g^{-1}, g^{-1})$ for some $n \in N$, so $g = n \in N$, and $N = G$, so that $G$ is simple.