I have this to purpose :
Let $a,b,c$ be real positive numbers such that $abc=1$ prove that : $$\frac{a^2}{(a^{11}+1)^2}+\frac{b^2}{(b^{11}+1)^2}+\frac{c^2}{(c^{11}+1)^2}\leq \frac{10^7}{9193531}$$
Where $9193531$ is a prime number wich makes the problem harder .
Really I have no ideas to prove this and all my classical methods fails automatically when I want solve this problem .
Furthermore I do not know which class of functions belongs $f(x)$ where :
$$f(x)=\frac{x^2}{(x^{11}+1)^2}$$
Maybe we can find a way with the concept of Quasiconvex function
If you have any hints it would be nice.
Thanks


Let $$f(x)=\frac{x^2}{(x^{11}+1)^2}.$$ By a compactness argument, there exists a triple $(a,b,c)$ of positive real numbers that maximizes the sum $f(a)+f(b)+f(c)$ subject to the constraint $abc=1$. We may assume that $0<a\leq b\leq c$. Then $a\leq1$ and $c\geq1$. If $a<10^{-1/11}$ then increasing $a$ and decreasing $c$ contradicts the maximality of $(a,b,c)$. Thus, $a\geq10^{-1/11}$. If $b>1$ then $$f(a)+f(b)+f(c)\leq f(10^{-1/11})+f(1)+f(1)\leq1.044$$ which contradicts the maximality of $(a,b,c)$ (there are better solutions than $1.044$). Thus, $b\leq1$. In summary, $$10^{-1/11}\leq a\leq b\leq1\leq c.$$ By Lagrange multipliers, $$\left\langle f^\prime(a),f^\prime(b),f^\prime(c)\right\rangle=\lambda\left\langle bc,ac,ab\right\rangle=\lambda\left\langle\frac{1}{a},\frac{1}{b},\frac{1}{c}\right\rangle.$$ If we set $p(x)=xf^\prime(x)$ then $p(a)=p(b)=p(c)$. Since $a\leq b\leq1$, looking at the graph of $p(x)$ shows that $a=b$. Then we wish to maximize the one-variable function $$g(x)=2f(x)+f\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)=2\left(\frac{x}{x^{11}+1}\right)^2+\left(\frac{x^{20}}{x^{22}+1}\right)^2.$$ The maximum occurs slightly above $x=10^{-1/11}$. We can find the maximum by setting $g^\prime(x)=0$. We can compute $$g^\prime(x)=\frac{4x(1-10x^{11})}{(x^{11}+1)^3}+\frac{4x^{39}(10-x^{22})}{(x^{22}+1)^3}.$$ Setting $g^\prime(x)=0$ gives $$\frac{1-10x^{11}}{(x^{11}+1)^3}+\frac{x^{38}(10-x^{22})}{(x^{22}+1)^3}=0.$$ Clearing denominators gives $$(1-10x^{11})(x^{22}+1)^3+x^{38}(10-x^{22})(x^{11}+1)^3=0.$$ The root of this polynomial can be found to arbitrary precision using Newton's method: $$x\approx0.8114699441003698687884808010408458056245.$$ Then $$g(x)\approx1.0877212680663091337501932514101994261908490$$ which is about $0.0000000873$ below $10^7/9193531$.
To make this 100% rigorous, you need to use bounds on $g^\prime(x)$ (this is rather tedious and was done in an earlier version of this answer).