Suppose we have an Stieltjes integral $h=\int f dg$ then use the fundamental theorem to get $dh=fdg$ and divide by $dg$ i.e $\frac{dh}{dg}=f$.
Is this meaningful and if so does anyone know any situation/application where this occurs?
2026-03-31 10:10:20.1774951820
An interpretation of the Riemann-Stieltjes integral
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