If $M$ and $N$ are $2$ normal abelian subgroups of a group $G$, then $MN$ is abelian?
I think that response is negative but i don't found a easy counterexample.
If $M$ and $N$ are $2$ normal abelian subgroups of a group $G$, then $MN$ is abelian?
I think that response is negative but i don't found a easy counterexample.
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Let $G=D_4$ with presentation $\langle a, b \mid a^4=b^2=e, ab=ba^{-1} \rangle$. Let $M= \langle a \rangle, N = \langle a^2, b \rangle$.