Let $R$ be a commutative ring and M be an $R$-module. The question is whether for every submodule $N$ of $M$ the equality
$$\operatorname{Ann}(\operatorname{Ann}(\operatorname{Ann}(N)))=\operatorname{Ann}(N)$$
holds. Anyone can give me a proof or a counter example? Thank you.
If $\operatorname{Ann}$ means $\operatorname{Ann}_R$, then this is not true in general when $N$ is not an ideal.
For example, take $R=\mathbb{Z}$ and $M=N=\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$.
Then $\operatorname{Ann}(N)=2\mathbb{Z}$, $\operatorname{Ann}(\operatorname{Ann}(N))=0$, and $\operatorname{Ann}(\operatorname{Ann}(\operatorname{Ann}(N)))=\mathbb{Z}$.