I'm revising Linear Algebra and am stuck on this question.
Supposing that $T:V \rightarrow W$ is a linear map, and that V is finite dimensional, I want to prove that $Im(T')=(Ker(T))^0$.
I know that $T':W' \rightarrow V'$ so that $Im(T') \subseteq V'$ and that this map is defined by $f \mapsto f\circ T$ and furthermore that $(Ker(T))^0$= {$f \in V': f(x)=0, \forall x \in Ker(T)$} but I am not sure how to prove they are equal.
If I can prove one is a subset of the other, I can prove their dimensions are equal quite easily:
$dimIm(T')=dim(ImT) = dimV-dimKer(T) = dim((Ker(T))^0)$
So I'm just stuck about how to prove one is a subset of the other.
Any help appreciated-thanks!
Since the have the same dimension, you only need to prove that $Im(T')\subset Ker(T)^0$.
Let $g\in Im(T')=g=f\circ T$. For every $x\in Ker T$, $g(x)=f(T(x))=0$ implies that $g\in Ker(T)^0$, you deduce that $Im(T')\subset Ker(T)^0$ since $dim(Im(T'))=dim(Ker(T)^0)$, you deduce that $Im(T')=Ker(T)^0$.