I’m not sure if this has been mentioned before (and I truly apologize if someone thought about it already) , but I tried to adopt a geometrical approach for the proof for an infinite number of Pythagorean triplets. Please read it once and please point out any mistakes .
Any Pythagorean triplet can be expressed in the form of $x^2+ y^2=r^2$ (r being an integer). Keeping $r$ constant , we can easily conclude that the equation is that of a circle. Rearranging the equation gives $y= \sqrt{r^2-x^2}$. (considering only natural numbers) . Now the domain of $x$ is $-r<x<r$ . Considering the base case , $r=1$ there is at least one integer pair that satisfies its equation , it being $(0,1)$. For $r>1$ , any integral value of $x$ gives a corresponding integral value of $y$, while the condition $-r<x<r$ still holds true. As there are infinite number of natural numbers $r$ , the result follows.
I would really like to know if I’ve missed on something so please guide me . Thank you !
Your statement is correct but your proof is not.
For example, consider the equation $$y= \sqrt {16-x^2}$$
You have claimed that for any integral value of $x$ you get an integral value of $y$
For $x= 1, 2, 3$ you get $y= \sqrt {15} , \sqrt {12}, \sqrt {7} $ and none of these numbers are integers.
The only integers that we get out of that are $0$ and $4$ which are trivial solutions to $ x^2+y^2=16$