I'm just learning about antiderivative that resulted some inverse trigonometric functions, since derivative of $ \arccos (x)$ is $-\frac {1} {\sqrt{1-x^2}}$. I tried put this value back into integral calculator, but I got $- \arcsin (x)$ instead of $ \arccos (x)$. even though $-\arcsin (x) \neq \arccos (x)$ so why this happen? Kow should I fix my understanding?
2026-03-29 03:44:33.1774755873
antiderivative around inverse trigonometric function
129 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
$$ \arccos(x) = \frac{\pi }{2}-\arcsin(x)\implies (\arccos(x))' =-(\arcsin(x))' $$