I try to solve this system of ODE's:
$$ \frac{dQ_1 (t)}{dt} = - a \sin (\omega t) Q_2(t) + b \cos(\omega t) Q_3(t) $$
$$ \frac{dQ_2 (t)}{dt} = - a \sin (\omega t) Q_1 (t) - c Q_3(t) $$
$$ \frac{dQ_3 (t)}{dt} = c Q_2(t) - b \cos(\omega t) Q_1(t) $$
with constant $a, b, c$.
In terms of vectors RHS is just cross production of $P = \{ c, b \cos(\omega t), a \sin(\omega t)\}$ and $Q$ vectors.
Is there any analytical method to solve this system, at least approximately?.. For example, if $a, b, c \ll \omega$.

Since $\dot{Q}=P\wedge Q$, the norm of the vector $Q$ is conserved. Indeed, $$\frac{d}{dt}\left( Q\cdot Q\right)=Q\cdot(P\wedge Q)+(P\wedge Q)\cdot Q=0.$$ This allows to decrease the number of degrees of freedom by $1$. For example, we can parameterize $Q_{1,2,3}$ with spherical angles: \begin{align*} Q_1&=R\cos\theta,\\ Q_2&=R\cos\phi\sin\theta,\\ Q_3&=R\sin\phi \sin\theta, \end{align*} where $R$ is constant. Now the system reduces to two $1$st order equations for $\theta,\phi$: \begin{align*} \dot{\theta}&=a\sin\omega t\cos\phi-b\cos\omega t\sin \phi,\\ \dot{\phi}&=c-\left(a\sin\omega t\sin\phi+b\cos\omega t\cos \phi\right)\cot\theta. \end{align*} Further thoughts: One way to rewrite the last system that may turn out to be useful is as follows. Introduce two functions \begin{align*} A(t)&=\sqrt{a^2\sin^2\omega t+b^2\cos^2\omega t},\\ \phi_0(t)&=\arctan\left(\frac{a}{b}\tan\omega t\right), \end{align*} and use instead of $\phi$ a translated function $\varphi:=\phi-\phi_0(t)$. Then we can write \begin{align*} \dot{\theta}&=-A(t)\sin\varphi,\\ \dot{\varphi}&=-A(t)\cos\varphi\cot\theta+c-\dot{\phi}_0(t). \end{align*} Furthermore, if we change the independent variable $$t\mapsto s(t)=-\int^tA(t)\,dt,$$ we end up with the system \begin{align*} \frac{d\theta}{ds}&=\sin\varphi,\\ \frac{d\varphi}{ds}&=\cos\varphi\cot\theta+C(s), \end{align*} where $C(s(t))=\displaystyle\frac{\dot{\phi}_0(t)-c}{A(t)}$. This is the simplest form I have found so far.
Special case $a=b$: Here the above expressions simplify to $$A(t)=a,\qquad \phi_0(t)=\omega t, \qquad s(t)=-a t,\qquad C(s)=\frac{\omega-c}{a}.$$ The equations of motion for $\theta$ and $\varphi$ are \begin{align*} \dot{\theta}&=-a\sin\varphi,\\ \dot{\varphi}&=-a\cos\varphi\cot\theta+\left(c-\omega\right). \end{align*} Now introducing \begin{align*} M_1&=\cos\theta,\\ M_2&=\cos\varphi\sin\theta,\\ M_3&=\sin\varphi \sin\theta, \end{align*} these equations can be written as $$\dot{M}=B\wedge M,\qquad B=\left(\begin{array}{c} c-\omega \\ a \\ 0 \end{array}\right).$$ This problem can be easily solved. In physics language, it describes Larmor precession of a magnetic moment in the uniform magnetic field $B$. The idea is to rotate the coordinate system so that $B$ aligns along one of the axes, then the moment projection on this axis is conserved, and in the plane orthogonal to it we will have a uniform rotation.
Here is the solution: \begin{align*} M_1&=a\left(\alpha\cos\omega_0t+\beta\sin\omega_0t\right)+\left(c-\omega\right)\gamma,\\ M_2&=-\left(c-\omega\right)\left(\alpha\cos\omega_0t+\beta\sin\omega_0t\right)+a\gamma,\\ M_3&=\omega_0\left(\beta\cos\omega_0t-\alpha\sin\omega_0t\right), \end{align*} where $\omega_0=\sqrt{a^2+\left(c-\omega\right)^2}$ and $\alpha,\beta,\gamma$ are arbitrary constants satisfying $$\alpha^2+\beta^2+\gamma^2=\omega_0^{-2}.$$ From this it is not difficult to get the solution for $Q_{1,2,3}$: \begin{align*} Q_1&=R\Bigl[ a\left(\alpha\cos\omega_0t+\beta\sin\omega_0t\right)+\left(c-\omega\right)\gamma\Bigr],\\ Q_2&=R\cos\omega t\Bigl[a\gamma-\left(c-\omega\right)\left(\alpha\cos\omega_0t+\beta\sin\omega_0t\right)\Bigr]-R\omega_0\sin\omega t\Bigl[\beta\cos\omega_0t-\alpha\sin\omega_0t\Bigr],\\ Q_3&=R\sin\omega t\Bigl[a\gamma-\left(c-\omega\right)\left(\alpha\cos\omega_0t+\beta\sin\omega_0t\right)\Bigr]+R\omega_0\cos\omega t\Bigl[\beta\cos\omega_0t-\alpha\sin\omega_0t\Bigr]. \end{align*}