Any quotient representation of completely reducible is completely reducible.

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Prove that every quotient representation of a completely reducible representation is completely reducible.

Could anyone give me a hint for this?

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Hint : if $M$ is completely reducible, $N$ is a subrepresentation, and $K$ a subrepresentation of $M/N$, we wish to find a subrepresentation $S$ of $M/N$ such that $K\oplus S = M/N$.

If $\pi: M\to M/N$ is the projection map, what can you say about $\pi^{-1}(K)$ ? What does the hypothesis on $M$ tell us ?