Is it alright to approximate a Delta distribution with an exponential like this:
$$\delta(x-1) = \omega\,e^{-\omega (x-1)}, \hspace{1cm} x \geq 1,$$
where, $\omega \gg 1 $, and, $$\int_1^{\infty} f(x)\,\delta(x-1) = f(1).$$ Also, what are the caveats of differentiating this distribution, e.g., can I write, $$\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\delta(x-1) = -\omega\,\delta(x-1).$$
Thanks.
The Dirac Delta has a standard regularization by the family of normed Gaussians $$\delta_\varepsilon (x) = \frac{1} {\sqrt{2\pi \varepsilon^2}} \ e^{- \frac{x^2}{2 \varepsilon^2}}$$ that has unit 1-norm and falls off to zero sudenly for $|x| > 3 \varepsilon$. The central points of a regularization of the $\delta$-distribution:
Check your approach against the thre points.