A friend conjectured that $\left[\prod_{k=1}^{a_j <\sqrt{x}} \left(1-\frac{1}{a_k}\right)\right] x$ is usually closer to $\pi(x)$ than $\operatorname{Li}(x)$ is for some (fixed) sequence of integers $a_k$.
Could this be true ?
2026-03-30 01:44:54.1774835094
Approximation to $\pi(x)$ conjecture.
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