Writing $(\forall a)(\forall b)(\forall c)(\forall d)\cdots$ means for every $a, b, c, d, \cdots$
And writing $(\exists a)(\exists b)(\exists c)(\exists d)\cdots$ means there is/are some $a, b, c, d, \cdots$
So I think changing the order shouldn't change anything right? If so in a formula of the form $(\exists a)(\exists b)(\cdots)$ do they both have the same scope?
While $(\exists x)(\forall y)$ and $(\forall x)(\exists y)$ are different since they mean: there is some $x$ that is such that for every $y$.. and for every $x$ there is some $y$ that is such that.. respectively correct?
They are, which is why you sometimes see expressions such as $\exists x,\,y$ or $\forall x,\,y$. Indeed, $$\exists x\exists y\phi(x,\,y)\iff\exists y\exists x\phi(x,\,y).$$