Let $P(z)\equiv 1($ mod $ \ z) $ be a polynomial of degree $n>3$ with integer coefficients. Are there infinitely many positive integers $x, y, z$ such that $(xz+1)(yz+1)=P(z)$?
If $P(z) = a_nz^n+1$, it has be proven that the Diophantine equation has infinitely many solutions in positive integers $x, y, z$ Prove that the diophantine equation $(xz+1)(yz+1)=az^{k}+1$ has infinitely many solutions in positive integers..
From experiment, it appears the assertion is true for all polynomials $P(z)\equiv 1$(mod$ \ z)$ of degree $n>3$. How do we go about proving this?
Note if $n=3$, it has been shown that the Diophantine equation has a finite number of solutions
A partial answer :
Let $P(z) = z^4 + z ^3+z^2+z+1$.
Define three sequences as follows ;
$x_1 = 4$, $x_2=27$, $x_n=7x_{n-1}-x_{n-2}-1$
$y_1 = x_2$, $y_2=x_3$, $y_n=7y_{n-1}-y_{n-2}-1$
$z_1 = 10$, $z_2=70$, $z_n=7z_{n-1}-z_{n-2}+1$
For all $n<10^5$, I have verified that $(x_n, y_n, z_n)$ is a solution of the Diophantine equation $(xz+1)(yz+1)=P(z)$.
A natural question: Is $(x_n, y_n, z_n) $ always a solution of the given equation?
This partial solution could serve as a starting point to proving the assertion in the question.