An associative * on a set G with unique right identity and left inverse proof enough for it to be a group ?Also would a right identity with a unique left inverse be a group as well then with the same logic? I don't need the proof , more so an explanation of why or why not the second case would be true or not?
2026-03-29 12:40:28.1774788028
Are unique right identity and left inverse proof enough for a group?
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The second situation does not parse very well as written, as “inverse” refers to identity and if you have potentially multiple identities, then you don’t know what “unique inverse” refers to.
You could sharpen it to something like the following:
The answer is “no”. Let $G$ be any set with more than one element and define the operation on $G$ by $xy=x$ for all $x,y\in G$. Then every element of $G$ acts as a right identity, and given any $f,x\in G$, there is a unique $y\in G$ such that $yx=f$ (namely, $y=f$). However, $G$ is not a group.
As to the original question, it has been asked before.