Am I correct in saying that $\vec{v}=\begin{pmatrix}1\\2\\0\end{pmatrix}$ and $\vec{w}=\begin{pmatrix}2\\4a\\a-1\end{pmatrix}$ are linearly independent $\forall a\in\mathbb R$ /{1}? It seems to me that the only way the second vector can be a multiple of the first is if $a=1$. How could I prove this? I tried something but I don't know if that is correct:
1) $\vec{v} ,\vec{w}$ are linearly independent if and only if the only solution to $\lambda\vec{v}+\mu\vec{w}=\vec{0}$ is $\lambda=\mu=0$
2) $\lambda\begin{pmatrix}1\\2\\0\end{pmatrix}+\mu\begin{pmatrix}2\\4a\\a-1\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}0\\0\\0\end{pmatrix}$
$\Rightarrow \lambda+2\mu=0$
$2\lambda+4a\mu=0$
$\mu a-\mu=0$
$\Rightarrow a=1$
I am not sure why I am getting $a=1$ because isn't that the solution where they are linearly dependent?
If $a=1$ then $w=2v$ so they are linearly dependent.
If $a\ne1$ then $\mu a-\mu=0\iff \mu =0$ and then $\lambda+2\mu=0\implies \lambda=0$ so $\mu=\lambda=0$ hence the two vectors $v$ and $w$ are linearly independent.