Could anyone explain me the equation below? Are we trying the find the T value where the $\theta_T < E_0[t]?$
$T^* = \underset{T}{Argmin} (\theta_T \geq E_0[T])$
I understand how argmin works for an equation like $\underset{x}{Argmin} f(x)$. The question above is not a numeric solution (I think).
I would really appreciate if anyone can provide me guidance on this matter.
Thanks in advance!
Edit:
Here are the whole events leading upto the formula. This is taken from Advances in Financial Machine Learning by Marcos Lopez De Prado.
$b_t=\begin{cases}b_{t-1}, & \text{if}\ \Delta p_t = 0 \\ \frac{|\Delta p_t|}{\Delta p_t} ,& \text{if} \Delta p_t \neq 0 \end{cases} $
- $p_t$ = the price associated with tick t
- $v_t$ = volume associated with tick t
$\theta_T = \sum_{t = 1}^{T}b_t$
T = tick index
$T^* = \underset{T}{Argmin} (\theta_T \geq E_0[T])$
$E_0[T]$ is calculated by exponentially weighted moving average of T
Judging from the text around your expression, it seems plausible that $T^\star$ is the smallest $T$ such that $\theta_T \geq E_0[T]$. These are not random variables because they are supposed to be computed at time $T$.
I think that the idea is that $\theta_T$ collects the imbalance in the price; as soon as the imbalance exceeds what we were expecting (so the expected length of the bar, $E_0[T]$), we sample a new bar.