My attempt: I tried to use the property $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(a,b-a)$ but ended up with a meaningless expression. I also tried assuming that if $a$ is of the form $2k_1$ then $b$ must be of the form $2k_2+1$ where $k_1$ and $k_2$ are integers, but this approach didn't work. Finally I deduced that $d=\gcd(a+b,a^2+b^2)|2ab.$ I am interested in knowing how this particular line of reasoning can be extended in order to solve this problem.
Note: I have read the answers to this problem here. My question is different in that it asks one to specifically use the fact that $d|2ab$ to prove that $d=1$ or $2$. Although there is an answer with the exact reasoning provided in that link, I am not sure whether the argument is logically sound. In particular I would like to know whether the following claim $d|2ab\Rightarrow d=1,2$ or $d|a$ or $d|b$ is true or false.
Let $p$ be a prime divisor of $d$. If $p \mid a$ then as it divides $a+b$ we have that it divides $a+b-a=b$. But this means that $p=1$, as $gcd(a,b) = 1$
Now similarly we can consider the cases $p \mid b$ or $p \mid 2$