To quote from the book in Lemma 3.3.4, we assume that all variables in the formula are bound at most once. Why is this restriction placed? Clearly the language with such a restriction is a subset of the language without the bound. Would it be reasonable to assume that these two languages are equivalent, and if so, how?
2026-04-07 11:33:58.1775561638
Assumption on the bound of variables
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