I saw this derivation of equations of the asymptotes of hyperbola and it goes like this...
For a standard hyperbola $\frac{x^2}{a^2}-\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$, rearranging the terms we get
$y=\pm\frac{b}{a}x\sqrt{1-\frac{a^2}{x^2}}$
So as $x\rightarrow\infty$, $\frac{a^2}{x^2}\rightarrow 0$ and hence $y\rightarrow\pm\frac{b}{a}x$.
Therefore the equations of the asymptotes are $y=\pm\frac{b}{a}x$.
I am not very sure if this derivation is correct. Would appreciate if you can share your opinion. Like if there is any step above that is not true in general.
Note that $$\frac{y}{\pm \frac{bx}{a}}=\sqrt{1-\frac{a^2}{x^2}},$$ and $\text{RHS}\to 1$ as $x\to\pm\infty.$ It then follows that $\text{LHS}$ is also $1$ at infinity. Thus, $$\frac{y}{\pm \frac{bx}{a}}\to 1,$$ which says that $y$ is asymptotic to the lines.