My question is related to the proof below. Why can we say that $F^{-1}(Y_n(x))=X_{[np]}$? I would like to understand better the reason for that.
Any help would be appreciated.
So
2025-01-13 02:05:18.1736733918
Asymptotic Distribution of Sample Quantile
283 Views Asked by An old man in the sea. https://math.techqa.club/user/an-old-man-in-the-sea/detail AtRelated Questions in PROBABILITY
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