Let us assume that $f(n)=2^{n+1}$, $g(n)=2^n$ be two functions.
Now, using limit to find $\mathcal{O}(f(n))$, $\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{2^{n+1}}{2^n}$we get 2 as answer 2 is less than infinity, so $f(n)$ belongs to $\mathcal{O}(g(n))$.
But how is this possible as it can clearly be seen that $2^{n+1} < 2^{n}$. using limits, $f(n)$ belongs to $\mathcal{O}(g(n))$ gets proved.
As you see:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{f(n)}{g(n)}=2$$
Then by limit definition given $\epsilon>0$ $\exists$ $n_0\in \mathbb{N}$ such:
$$\left| \frac{f(n)}{g(n)} -2 \right|<\epsilon \ \ \ \forall n\geq n_0$$
Then:
$$\left| \frac{f(n)}{g(n)}\right|\leq \left| \frac{f(n)}{g(n)} -2 \right|+2\leq \epsilon+2 \ \ \ \forall n\geq n_0 $$ Therefore:
$$\left| \frac{f(n)}{g(n)}\right|\leq \epsilon+2 \ \ \ \forall n\geq n_0$$ $$\left| f(n)\right|\leq (\epsilon+2)\left|g(n)\right| \ \ \ \forall n\geq n_0$$