I am reading the following problem, which falls under the Pigeonhole principle.
A chess tournament has $n$ participants and any two players play one game against each other. Then it is true that at any given point in time, there are two players who have finished the same number of games.
My approach:
I assume the opposite, i.e., that we never have players with the same number of matches at any time.
This means that at any point in time all players have completed different number of matches. This implies that there will be only $1$ player that has finished $1$ match but that is impossible since it takes $2$ person to finish a match. Hence the opposite must be true i.e. that we have always at least two players with the same number of matches.
At this point I think my proof is wrong. Because I am not sure if my approach actually makes the point be proven for any point in time. Additionally I don't think I am applying the pigeonhole principle.
What do you think of my proof and how can it be improved?
At a given point, it is possible that each participant had played more than one match. So your solution as stated is not generic.
Writing my comment as an answer, a generic approach based on Pigeonhole principle will be to assume that at a given point, m participants have played matches $(2 \le m \le n)$. The minimum number of matches a participant could have played is $1$ and the maximum number of matches a participant could have played is $(m−1)$. That is $(m-1)$ distinct number of matches played by $m$ different participants. So, at least two participants must have played equal number of matches.