Solve
I)$$\lim\limits_{x\to+\infty}{f(x)}=\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}{{1+\ln^2x\over x}}$$
II)$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}{f(x)}=\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}{{1+\ln^2x\over x}}$$
Personal work:
I)$$\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}{{1+\ln^2x\over x}}=\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}({1\over x}+{\ln^2x\over x})=L$$
Let $u=\ln x \iff e^u=x$, hence $u_0=+\infty$, then: $$\lim\limits_{u\to +\infty}({1\over e^u}+{u^2\over e^u})=\lim\limits_{u\to +\infty}{1\over e^u}+\lim\limits_{u\to+\infty}{u^2\over e^u}=\cdots=0+0^+=0$$ because, when $${1\over e^u}\to +\infty$$, then $${1\over e^u}=0^+.$$ So, $$L=0.$$
II) I'm a bit baffled about letting either $u=\ln x$ or $u=x.$
Note that it is not an indeterminate form thus
$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}{f(x)}=\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}{{1+\ln^2x\over x}}=\left(\frac{+\infty}{0^+}\right)=+\infty$$
or also
$$\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}{f(x)}=\lim\limits_{x\to 0^+} \frac1x\cdot(1+\ln^2x)=\left(+\infty\cdot+\infty\right)=+\infty$$