Banach space and Hilbert space

Question

I'm trying to understand Hilbert spaces and Banach spaces, and there is specifically one thing that I don't understand.

As of my understanding the Hilbert space have a scalar product that is defined by $$<f,g> = \int f(x)\overline{g(x)} dx$$

My question is, does the Banach space also have some kind of scalar product, and if not - why not?

Thanks!