Banach Space: Open Unit Ball Totally Bounded?

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Just to be sure: In an infinite dimensional Banach space the open unit ball cannot be totally bounded, right? The context is that I need this in order to find a lack in here...

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If the open unit ball were totally bounded, then so would its closure, which is the closed unit ball. The closed unit ball, in turn, is complete (as a closed subset of a Banach space). Hence, the closed unit ball would be compact, which it can be shown it is not, given that the space is infinite-dimensional.

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You are right: it is not totally bounded. Riesz's lemma directly leads to an infinite uniformly separated subset of unit ball, as the Wikipedia article shows.