$\bar{S}=\left\{[z,w,t]\in \mathbb{C}P^2 : w^2t^{k-2}=(z-a_1t)\ldots (z-a_kt)\right\}$ is a Riemann surface iff $k \leq 3$

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I know that if $P \in \mathbb{C}[z]$ is a monic polynomial with distinct roots,

$$P(z)=(z-a_1) \ldots (z-a_k),$$

then the set

$$S= \left\{ (z,w)\in \mathbb{C}^2 : w^2=P(z) \right\}$$

is a connected Riemann surface. Now I want to consider the homogenization of the polynomial $w^2-P(z)$ and consider, for $k \geq 2$,

$$\bar{S}=\left\{[z,w,t]\in \mathbb{C}P^2 : w^2t^{k-2}=(z-a_1t)\ldots (z-a_kt)\right\}.$$

My goal is to show that $\bar{S}$ is a Riemann surface iff $k \leq 3$.

For $k=1$, we get

$$\bar{S}=\left\{[z,w,t]\in \mathbb{C}P^2 : w^2=(z-a_1t)t\right\},$$

which is a non-degenerate quadric, and then a Riemann surface.

Similarly, for $k=2$ we get

$$\bar{S}=\left\{[z,w,t]\in \mathbb{C}P^2 : w^2=(z-a_1t)(z-a_2t)\right\},$$

another non-degenerate quadric.

For $k=3$, we get the condition

$$w^2t=(z-a_1t)(z-a_2t)(z-a_3t),$$

and I guess the idea here would be to show that there’s no solution to $f=\partial f/\partial z=\partial f/\partial t=0$ where $f(z,w,t)=w^2t-(z-a_1t)(z-a_2t)(z-a_3t)$, which I haven’t tried yet. Is there a simpler way?

For $k>3$, I’m out of ideas. Any help would be appreciated.