This may be a really trivial question. Anyway, suppose that $x=(x_{1},x_{2},\ldots)\in\ell^{1}$ and let $e_{n}\in\ell^{1}$ denote the standard $n$-th coordinate sequence. Is it then true that $$x=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}x_{n}e_{n}?$$ Here is what I know:
It is clear that $$\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}\|x_{n}e_{n}\|_{1}=\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}|x_{n}|=\|x\|_{1}<\infty.$$ So because $\ell^{1}$ is complete, it follows that the series $\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}}x_{n}e_{n}$ indeed converges in $\ell^{1}$.
But how can I conclude that the series is actually equal to $x$? And does this imply that $(e_{1},e_{2},\ldots)$ is some sort of basis for $\ell^{1}$?
It is not an orthonormal basis since we have no inner-product that induces he norm $\|\cdot\|_{1}$ on $\ell^{1}$.
If $s_n$'s are the partial sums then $\|s_n-x\|= \sum\limits_{k=n+1}^{\infty} |x_k|$ and this last sum tends to $0$.