I am trying to understand the definition of an associative unital $R$-algebra (without assuming commutativity). Let $R=\Bbb R$ be the real numbers. Then I first want to understand $\Bbb R$-algebras with low rank.
To define an $\Bbb R$-algebra $A$ of rank $n$, I have to give an $\Bbb R$-basis to $A$, where I treat $A$ as an $\Bbb R$-module. Say I choose $\{x_1,\dots,x_n\}$. I do not assume that $A$ is commutative, so next I have to define all of the pair-wise products $x_ix_j=c_{ij}\in A$ for $i,j\in\{1,\dots,n\}$.
If I try to do this in rank $1$, I take $A$ to be generated by $x$ where $x$ is a formal symbol not in $\Bbb R$. Then all the elements are of the form $\{ax\mid x\in\Bbb R\}$. I also must $x\cdot x\in A$, so I choose $x\cdot x = qx$. Then if I want to check if this is just isomorphic as an $\Bbb R$-algebra to $\Bbb R$, I claim that I can define the map by $x\mapsto 1$ and use $\Bbb R$-linearity. $$q=q\varphi(x)=\varphi(qx)=\varphi(x\cdot x)=\varphi(x)\varphi(x)=1,$$ so this is not an isomorphism unless $q=1$. Then there is an isomorphism class of $\Bbb R$-algebras of rank $1$ for every $q\in\Bbb R$?
Or I am doing something wrong, and there is only one $\Bbb R$-algebra of rank $1$ up to isomorphism for some reason (which is definitely true at the level of the module structure).
edit: I just realised I forgot, I have to send $1_A$ to $1_{\Bbb R}$. So I determine what $1_A$ is. Let $1_A=ix$, then this satisfies $ax\cdot ix = aiqx\implies i=q^{-1}$. So that my $\Bbb R$-linear map just send $q^{-1}x$ to $1$. Then $$q^{-1}\varphi(x)=\varphi(q^{-1}x)=1\implies \varphi(x)=q.$$ Then $\varphi(ax)=aq$ and this is a bijective ring homomorphism as long as $q\in\Bbb R-\{0\}$. So maybe there are two isomorphism classes? One with $q=0$ and one with $q\ne 0$?
There is a unique associative unital $\Bbb{R}$-algebra of rank $1$.
Proof.
Let $A$ be an $\Bbb{R}$-algebra of rank $1$.
Since $\Bbb{R}$ is a field, the map $\Bbb{R}\to A$ defined by $r\mapsto r\cdot 1$ is a unital ring homomorphism and therefore injective (since $A\ne 0$, because it has rank 1). However, since $\Bbb{R}$ and $A$ both have dimension $1$, it must also be surjective. Thus it is an isomorphism.
Proof.
Let $A$ be a rank $n$ $k$-algebra. Since $A\ne 0$, $1\ne 0$ in $A$.
Extending $\{1\}$ to a basis, we let $1,X_1,\ldots,X_{n-1}$ be a basis for $A$. Then define $\phi:k\langle x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1}\rangle \to A$ by $x_i\mapsto X_i$. Since $1,X_1,\ldots,X_{n-1}$ are in the image of $\phi$, $\phi$ is surjective. Thus $A$ is a quotient of $k\langle x_1,\ldots,x_{n-1} \rangle$ by the first isomorphism theorem.
The reason this is a generalization is that when $n=1$, we have that every rank $1$ algebra is a quotient of $k$, which immediately tells us that the unique rank $1$ algebra over any field is just $k$.