I'm having trouble understanding the following problem
Problem
Beckenbach, Chapter 2 Pg 24 Ex 1 $$ \text{Show the following for all a, b}\quad \frac{(a+b)}{2} \le \left(\frac{a^2 + b^2}{2}\right)^\frac{1}{2} $$
The book provides answers in the back, the answer is shown as
$$ \text{equivalent to}\quad(a - b)^2 \ge 0 $$
My attempt
Thanks to this answer: Proving the inequality $\frac{a+b}{2} - \sqrt{ab} \geq \sqrt{\frac{a^2+b^2}{2}} - \frac{a+b}{2}$ I was able to show the following
$$ \begin{align} \frac{a+b}{2} &\le \sqrt{\frac{a^2 + b^2}{2}} \\ \frac{a+b}{2} &\le \sqrt{\frac{(a+b)^2 + (a-b)^2}{4}}\\ \frac{a+b}{2} &\le \sqrt{\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right)^2\left(1 + \left(\frac{a-b}{a+b}\right)^2\right)}\\ \frac{a+b}{2} &\le \frac{a+b}{2}\sqrt{1 + \left(\frac{a-b}{a+b}\right)^2}\\ 0 &\le \sqrt{1 + \left(\frac{a-b}{a+b}\right)^2} - 1 \\ \text{Since}\quad\left(\frac{a-b}{a+b}\right)^2 \ge 0\quad\text{we're done} \end{align} $$
This feels ugly and I don't think is the way Beckenbach intended us to solve, considering this is in Chapter 2.
Question
- Is my attempt valid?
- Is there a more elegant way to show this, using $(a-b)^2 \ge 0$?
Thanks
Your proof has a tiny issue you need to address (and then it'll be correct): you forgot absolute values around $\frac{a+b}{2}$ once you factor $\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right)^2$ out of the square root.
Note that $$ \frac{a+b}{2} \leq \frac{\lvert a\rvert +\lvert b\rvert}{2}\tag{1} $$ so it suffices to prove $$ \frac{\lvert a\rvert +\lvert b\rvert}{2} \leq\left(\frac{a^2+b^2}{2}\right)^{1/2} \tag{2} $$ Square both sides of (2): this is equivalent, this everything is non-negative: so (2) is equivalent to $$ \frac{a^2+b^2+2\lvert a\rvert\lvert b\rvert}{4} \leq \frac{a^2+b^2}{2} $$ in turn equivalent to $$ a^2+b^2+2\lvert a\rvert\lvert b\rvert \leq 2a^2+2b^2 $$ in turn equivalent to $$ 0 \leq a^2+b^2+2\lvert a\rvert\lvert b\rvert \tag{3} $$ and the RHS is equal to $(\lvert a\rvert -\lvert b\rvert )^2$.
So (3) holds.