Is it possible to prove that if $f\in L^2(\mathbb {R}) $ then $\exists\lim_{x\to\pm\infty}\lvert f\rvert^2$ and $\lim_{x\to\pm\infty}\lvert f\rvert^2=0$? If not, is it easy to find a counterexample?
2026-04-14 15:19:27.1776179967
Behaviour of $L^2$ functions at infinity
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