Let $X$ be a normed vector space.
I know if $X$ is reflexive, then for every normed space $Y$ that $X$ is a subspace of $Y$, $X$ has a best approximation to every $y \in Y$ (which is to say there exists $x\in X$ that $d(y, X) = \|x-y\|$).
I need to prove the converse of the above fact. To be more precise, if for every normed space $Y$ that $X \subset Y$, $X$ has a best approximation to every $y \in Y$, is it true that $X$ is reflexive?
A proof can be found here (page 399)