I am facing the following integral:
$$\frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}\int d\vec{q}e^{i\vec{q}\cdot\vec{r}}\frac{4\pi Q}{q^2+k^2} \tag{1}$$
so the 3D inverse Fourier transform of the function $\frac{4\pi Q}{q^2+k^2}$, where $Q$ and $k$ are simply constants. I wasn't able to solve it, and what is driving me crazy is that in my lecture notes (1) is referred to as a "trivial integral". What is trivial about it? What am I missing? The result of the integration should be:
$$\frac{Q}{r}e^{-kr}\tag{2}$$
How can we get to this result?