Let $F$ be a field and $F[x]$ a polynomial ring. Let $p(x)$ be an irreducible polynomial. Show that $\gcd(p(x),q(x)) = 1\Longrightarrow \exists r(x),s(x)$ such that $r(x)p(x)+s(x)q(x) = 1$.
I know the proof for Bezout's identity for integers, but this proof uses the notion of absolute value, which cannot be applied to a polynomial ring.
I am thinking about a way to prove the statement: Use the Euclidean algorithm to compute $\gcd(p(x),q(x))$ and show that the result is $1$, and somehow go backwards to obtain $r(x)p(x)+s(x)q(x) = 1$, but it is a bit messy, and I'm not yet able to see it completely.
Please offer some help. If you have some other methods, that would be great, too.
Hint $\ $ Mimic the proof for integers: $ $ the set $\rm\,I = \{a\, p + b\, q\ :\ a,b \in F[x]\}\,$ is closed under mod (remainders), so a least (degree) element $\rm\:g\ne 0\:$ must divide every element $\rm\,f\,$ (else its remainder $\rm\,f\ mod\ g\, =\, f-q\,g\in I\,$ has smaller degree than $\rm\,g,\,$ contra leastness of $\rm\:g).\,$ Thus $\rm\,p,q\in I\,\Rightarrow\,g\mid p,q,\:$ so $\rm\:g = 1,\:$ by $\rm\:gcd(p,q) = 1.\:$ Thus $\rm\:1\in I,\:$ i.e. $\rm\:1 = a\, p + b\, q.$