Big O notation: If $f=O(g)$ then $\int f=O(\int g)$?
This is a follow up question to Show $\int_{0}^{\infty} \sin^2{[\pi(x+\frac{1}{x})]}\,\mathrm{d}x$ diverges. where the above statement is employed. I'm wondering if anyone can give a justification of the above statement. It seems to make intuitive sense that if $f$ grows no faster than $g$ then the same should be the case for their integrals. However I'm not all familiar with big O but by my understanding it suffices to prove that something like $\frac{\int f}{\int g}$ is bounded. Can anyone provide some kind of rigorous proof or explanation of the statement?
The theorem you can use here :
It is the analog of comparison between positive sum $\sum$.
ps : it make nos sense to write $\int f = O(\int g)$, since the $O$ notation is a (local) comparison of functions.
More generally :