Is $$ \bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty}\{z\in\Bbb C:z^n=1\}=\{z\in\Bbb C:|z|=1\}$$my argument is that the argument of the elements of the first set are rational multiples of $\pi$ whereas the second set also consists of elements with irrational multiples of $\pi$. But I am not so sure, there is still some doubt.
2026-03-26 08:23:05.1774513385
$ \bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty}\{z\in\Bbb C:z^n=1\}=\{z\in\Bbb C:|z|=1\}$?
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Those two sets are certainly not equal.
$\displaystyle\bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty}\{z\,|\,z^n=1,n\in \mathbb N\}$ is countable as it is a countable union of finite sets, while $\{z/|z|=1\}$ has the cardinality of the continuum.