There is for sure more than one method to do this , however I want to understand the hint provided in my book .The book says to use the bijection between N and Z given by f(n)=n/2 if n is even and f(n)= (1-n)/2 if n is odd .I think I can prove one to one , but why is f(n) onto ?? More importantly how does this translate into a bijection between P(N) and P(Z)?? is it automatic? I believe some explanation is required but I cannot figure it out...............
2026-04-02 09:24:54.1775121894
Bijection between Power Set of Natural numbers and Power Set of integers
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Thinking in terms of the specific sets may make this look more mysterious than it actually is: what we're seeing here is an instance of a more general phenomenon.
Namely:
To see this, suppose $f:A\rightarrow B$ is a bijection and I have a set $S$ of elements of $A$. The function $f$ only takes as input individual elements of $A$, so something like "$f(S)$" doesn't make sense; nonetheless, do you see a way to use $f$ to turn $S$ into a subset $\hat{S}$ of $B$?
Let's give the construction above a name, call it "$F$." That is, $F$ is the function
Can you see how to use the fact that our original function $f$ is a bijection to show that $F$ is also a bijection between $\mathcal{P}(A)$ and $\mathcal{P}(B)$?