I'm a little confused about the following example given by my textbook on have to convert $\frac{2}{3}$ to its binary form
To determine the binary representation we write
$\frac{2}{3}=(0.a_1a_2a_3...)_2$
We multiply by 2 to obtain
$\frac{4}{3}=(a_1.a_2a_3...)_2$
Therefore we get $a_1=1$ by taking the integer part of both sides. Subtracting 1 from both sides, we have
$\frac{1}{3}=(0.a_2a_3a_4...)_2$
Repeating the previous steps , we eventually arrive at
$\frac{2}{3}=(0.1010....)_2$
Now I get why $a_1=1$ by why does $a_2=0$?
From $$\frac{1}{3}=(0.a_2a_3a_4...)_2$$ we multiply by $2$ to obtain $$\frac23=(a_2.a_3a_4\ldots)_2$$
Since $2/3<0$, $a_2$ is $0$.