I have $n$ objects. Every object has a random value in $[0;k)$ (in $\mathbf{N}$). How high is the probability for every object to be unique within the set of $n$ objects?
This is obviously a case of the birthday paradox.
From there we know, that $u = \frac{k!}{(k-n)!}$ is the possible number of combinations in which all objects are unique and $m=k^n$ is the total number of possible combinations. Therefore, the probability that all objects are unique must be $P=u/m$.
My problem is I'm dealing with really big numbers. WolframAlpha cannot handle it and neither can my brain. It's hard for me to even estimate if P is small or high, i.e. $m >> n$?
In my case, I need to compute the formula for $n=3.2*10^7$ and $k=2^{32768}$.
Can anyone at least give an approximation for the result?
The birthday problem actually gets easier, not harder, as the numbers get bigger (or more precisely as $k$ gets bigger relative to $n$). That's because there's a very simple approximation that gets more accurate as the numbers gets bigger. That approximation is the following: write the uniqueness probability as
$$\mathbb{P} = \prod_{i=1}^{n-1} \left( 1 - \frac{i}{k} \right)$$
and use the inequality $1 - x \le \exp(-x)$, which is an excellent approximation with error $O(x^2)$ for $x$ small (meaning the bigger $k$ gets the better this approximation is) to conclude that
$$\mathbb{P} \le \exp \left( -\sum_{i=1}^{n-1} \frac{i}{k} \right) = \boxed{ \exp \left( - \frac{ {n \choose 2} }{k} \right) }.$$
The error in this approximation is a multiplicative factor of $1 + O \left( \frac{n^3}{k^2} \right)$ which in your case, with $k$ so large, is totally negligible.
We can see from here that it's not even close: $k$ is much, much larger than ${n \choose 2}$ so the exponent is extremely small and the probability of uniqueness is extremely close to $1$. ${n \choose 2}$ is about $5.1 \times 10^{14}$ while $k$ is the enormously larger $1.4 \times 10^{9864}$. $k$ is so much larger than any of the other numbers in this problem that the above approximation is effectively exact and $\mathbb{P}$ is for all practical purposes equal to $1$.
It is completely unnecessary to use Stirling's approximation here, which is much harder than the above very simple and very accurate approximation (try it on the original birthday problem!). The exponent $\frac{ {n \choose 2} }{k}$ has the intuitive interpretation of being the expected number of collisions, and the fact that it appears in the exponent like this reflects the fact that as long as $k$ is big enough compared to $n$, the number of collisions is asymptotically Poisson with $\lambda = \frac{ {n \choose 2} }{k}$.