Let us consider the following problem: $$ \begin{align} -&u_{xx}=0&&\forall x\in(0,L)&&\tag{1}\\ &u(0)=0\tag{2}\\ &u_x(L)=\alpha\tag{3} \end{align} $$ It is possible to insert (3) in (1) as follows: $$ \begin{align} -&u_{xx}=\alpha\delta (x-L)&&\forall x\in(0,L]\tag{4}\\ &u(0)=0 \tag{5}\\ &u_x(L)=0 \tag{6} \end{align} $$ where $\delta(x-L)=\delta_L$ is the Dirac distribution. Are there results showing that these two formulations are equivalent? It is not clear to me whether (6) should be kept or not.
Boundary condition inserted in the local PDE
145 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtThere are 3 best solutions below
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I am suggesting a solution below (but I am not convinced). From (1), (2) and (3), it is clear that the sought solution is $u(x)=\alpha x$. Let us try to solve (4), (5) and (6) in the sense of distributions. Integrating (4) twice yields: $$-u(x)=ax+b+\alpha (x-L)H(x-L)$$ Condition (5) implies $b=0$ and condition (6) implies $$a+\alpha H(0)=0 \tag{7}$$ If we consider that $H(0)=1$ by definition, (7) becomes $a=-\alpha$ and the exact solution is retrieved on the interval $[0,L]$. However, another definition of $H$ would generate erroneous results, which seems annoying. We also realize that $u(x)=\alpha x$ does no longer satisfy (6), which looks strange.
On
I am suggesting a second answer here (not really convinced either). The idea is to have the $\delta$ as a non-homogeneous term in the PDE and then push it to the boundary. Formally it reads: Solve $$ \begin{align} -&u_{xx}=\alpha\delta (x-\beta)&&\forall x\in(0,L)\tag{8}\\ &u(0)=0 \tag{9}\\ &u_x(L)=0 \tag{10} \end{align} $$ where $0<\beta<L$. The distributional solution to (8), (9) and (10) is: $$-u(x)=\alpha\bigl((x-\beta)H(x-\beta)-xH(L-\beta)\bigr)$$ If we take the limit $\beta\to L$ of the above expression together with the definition $H(0)=1$, then the solution $u(x)=\alpha x$ is retrieved on the interval $[0,L]$.
Let $u$ be the solution on $[0,L]$ and let $\bar{u}$ be its extension to $\mathbb{R}$ defined as $$ \bar{u}(x) = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x < 0 \\ u(x) & \text{if } x \in [0,L] \\ u(L) & \text{if } x > L \\ \end{cases} $$
Then $\bar{u}$ is continuous and its distributional partial derivative w.r.t $x$ is given by $$ \partial_x \bar{u}(x) = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } x<0 \\ \partial_x u(x) & \text{if } x \in (0,L) \\ 0 & \text{if } x>L \\ \end{cases} $$
This is however discontinuous so $$ \partial_x^2 \bar{u} = \partial_x u \, \chi_{(0,L)} + \partial_x u(0+) \, \delta_0 - \partial_x u(L-) \, \delta_L $$