By Banach-Mazur theorem [ every separable Banach space X is isomorphic to a subspace of $C(0,1)$ ] we have that $C([0,1])$ has a copy of $\ell_p$.
But, $C([0,1], \ell_p)$ has a copy of $\ell_q$, where $\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}=1$?
2026-03-27 13:24:24.1774617864
$C([0,1], \ell_p)$ has a copy of $\ell_q$?
45 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in BANACH-SPACES
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